I'm kind of baffled by this. "Many household costs are amortized across the number of people in the household" does not equate to "society discriminates against single people." Not all inequalities imply discriminatory unfairness. Housing is out of reach of many and there are many, many, many coupled people who make (much) less than the six-figure salaries of the single people in this story whose inability to buy a house is portrayed as a direct effect of society being, quote, "structurally antagonistic" towards single people. I am thoroughly unconvinced.
no subject